If you’re preparing for the United States Medical Licensing Examination® (USMLE®) Step 3 exam, you might want to know which questions are most often missed by test-prep takers. Check out this example from Kaplan Medical, and read an expert explanation of the answer. Also check out all posts in this series.
A 26-year-old G1P0 woman who is 8-weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding for the past three days. She denies any passage of blood clots and has no abdominal or pelvic pain. Vital signs and physical examination are normal. Transvaginal ultrasound demonstrates a gestational sac containing a fetal pole and a yolk sac. The fetal heart motion is detected, and crown rump length measurements are consistent with an 8-week gestation. There is a small crescent-shaped hypoechoic area next to the gestational sac.
What is the next step in management of this patient?
A. Bedrest for the remainder of the pregnancy.
B. Serum beta-HCG.
C. Reassurance to the patient that the ultrasound was normal.
D. Suction curettage.
E. Follow-up ultrasound in 1-week.
The correct answer is E.
Kaplan Medical explains why
Kaplan Medical explains why
The ultrasound demonstrates a viable intrauterine pregnancy that corresponds to the patient’s last menstrual period. The crescent-shaped hypoechoic area adjacent to the gestational sac is indicative of subchorionic hemorrhage. This is bleeding that occurs between the endometrium and the gestational sac.
The greater the size of the subchorionic hemorrhage, the greater the risk of spontaneous abortion. Small hemorrhages, as in this case, often spontaneously resolve on their own. The best management for small subchorionic hematomas is to follow the patient's symptoms and repeat the ultrasound to evaluate for interval resolution or change.
Why the other answers are wrong
Why the other answers are wrong
Choice A: Bedrest for the remainder of the pregnancy is not indicated for a small subchorionic hemorrhage. Bedrest is often recommended in the setting of preeclampsia, not at issue here.